100 Frequently Asked Questions in Judiciary Exams

1. By which amendment was the Sindhi language added in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution?
Ans. 21st Amendment, 1967.

2. Which case is related to live streaming of the proceedings of the Supreme Court?
Ans. Swapnil Tripathi vs SC of India.

3. In which case was the concept of curative petition first evolved by the Supreme Court of India?
Ans. Rupa Ashok Hurra vs Ashok Hurra and Anr 2002.

4. Which writ can be issued against a private person also?
Ans. Habeas Corpus.

5. Who is considered as the custodian of the public purse?
Ans. Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

6. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural guardian of a minor child is?
Ans. Father and after him mother.

7. For how many years a person has to be a High Court judge to become a Supreme Court Judge?
Ans. Five

8. Code of Criminal Procedure is a subject matter of which list?
Ans. Concurrent List

9. Which was the first case to introduce the concept of judicial review?
Ans. Marbury vs Madison (1803)

10. Secularism was added in the Preamble by which amendment?
Ans. Forty Second amendment.

11. Who is considered as the father of the Indian Evidence Act?
Ans. James Stephen.

12. Who said that Section 6 (Res gestae) is the weakest of whole evidence?
Ans. J. Wigmore.

13. Which preliminary examination of a child is done to test his competency as a witness?
Ans. Voir dire test.

14. “Evidence is to be weighed and not counted” attracts which section of the Evidence Act?
Ans. Section 134.

15. When leading questions can be asked to a party?
Ans. In Cross-examination (Section 143)

16. Order has been defined as a formal expression of any decision of a civil court which is not a decree, under:
Ans. Section 2(14) of the Civil Procedure Code.

17. Constructive res-judicata is contained in-
Ans. Explanation IV of section 11 of CPC.

18. Law of evidence is-
Ans. Lex fori. (Lex fori means ‘The law applicable to particular legal proceedings’.)

19. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is contained in-
Ans. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act.

20. Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in-
Ans. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act.

21. The relationship in section 50 of the Evidence Act means?
Ans. Relationship by blood or marriage or adoption.

22. Under the Hindu Law marriage is a-
Ans. Sacrament.

23. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other by-
Ans. Full blood.

24. Registration of a Hindu Marriage has been provided under-
Ans. Section 8 of the Hindu Marriage Act.

25. The statement “what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly” relates to the doctrine of-
Ans. Doctrine of colorable legislation.

26. Provision for setting aside ex-party decree is given under?
Ans. Order lX, Rule 13

27. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the Uniform Civil Code?
Ans. Article 44

28. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act is related to the oral transfer?
Ans. Section 9 of TPA

29. In which provision of the Indian Evidence Act refreshing memory has been given?
Ans. Section 159

30. In Joseph Shrine vs Union of India, the Supreme Court declared which section of IPC ultra vires?
Ans. Section 497

31. Under which Article of the Constitution parliament can form a new state?
Ans. Article 3

32. Which Article under the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
Ans. Article 17

33. Under Article 338A of the Indian Constitution there shall be a commission known as?
Ans. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

34. Easement is a right in?
Ans. Rem (against the whole world)

35. Damages awarded for tortious acts are?
Ans. Unliquidated damages

36. Rule of absolute liability was propounded by?
Ans. Justice P.N Bhagwati

37. The residuary power of legislation with parliament vests under which Article?
Ans. Article 248

38. A lawyer appointed by the court to assist is known as?
Ans. Amicus curiae

39. What is the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India as provided under the Constitution of India?
Ans. 33 Judges + 1 Chief Justice of India = 34

40. Other name for mercy killing is?
Ans. Euthanasia

41. By which Act was the Privy Council abolished in India?
Ans. Privy Council Abolishment Act, 1949

42. Who administers oath to the Governor of a state?
Ans. Chief Justice of High Court (Article 159)

43. Which parliament is considered to be the mother of parliament?
Ans. England’s Parliament

44. Who was the last to sign the Constitution of India?
Ans. Feroz Gandhi, the President of Constituent Assembly.

45. Who wrote the Indian constitution in italic style?
Ans. Prem Behari Narain Raizada

46. Which Act provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774?
Ans. The Regulating Act, 1773

47. Who became the first viceroy of India?
Ans. Lord Canning in 1858

48. How long did it take to complete the Constitution of India?
Ans. 2 years 11 months and 18 days

49. Who for the first time put forward the idea of Constituent Assembly for India?
Ans. M.N Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India.

50. Who became the temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Ans. Dr. Sachidanand Sinha

51. By which constitutional amendment the voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years?
Ans. 61st constitutional amendment Act of 1988.

52. When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held?
Ans. 9th December 1946

53. Money bill is given under which Article of the Constitution of India?
Ans. Article 110

54. Who described the Directive Principles of State Policy as “manifesto of aims and aspirations”?
Ans. K.C Wheare

55. Which Article abolishes the practice of untouchability?
Ans. Article 17 of the Constitution of India

56. Who is the Legal Advisor to the Government of a State in India?
Ans. The Advocate General

57. The president’s rule under Article 356 remains valid in the state for the maximum period of?
Ans. Six months. It can be extended maximum for 3 years with the approval of parliament every six months.

58. Article 39A of the Constitution deals with?
Ans. Equal justice and free legal aid

59. Provisions as to administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes are in which Schedule?
Ans. Fifth Schedule

60. Which Schedule relates to the municipalities?
Ans. Twelfth Schedule

61. Common intention means?
Ans. Sharing of intention by all persons

62. The word good faith is defined under the Indian Penal Code in?
Ans. Section 52

63. How many persons are required for the offence of dacoity in IPC?
Ans. At least five persons

64. Which section of the IPC provides infancy as an exception to the offence?
Ans. Section 82 of IPC

65. Who has drafted the Indian Penal Code?
Ans. First Law Commission chaired by Thomas Babington Macaulay.

66. What is the enforcement date of the Indian Contract Act?
Ans. 1 September 1872

67. Which section says that an agreement without consideration is void?
Ans. Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act

68. When both the parties in a contract are under a mistake of fact, the contract is void or voidable?
Ans. Contract is void under section 20 of the Contract Act

69. Doctrine of frustration is embodied under which section of the Indian Contract Act?
Ans. Section 56

70. Lalman Shukla vs Gauri Dutt case is related to?
Ans. Communication of Acceptance (Indian Contract Act)

71. Evidence under the Evidence Act means and includes?
Ans. Ocular, oral and documentary. (Ocular means ‘connected with eyes or vision’)

72. The Indian Evidence Act has been divided into how many chapters and parts?
Ans. 3 Parts, 11 Chapters

73. What is not included in the expression ‘court’ under the Evidence Act?
Ans. Arbitrator

74. Facts alleged by one party and denied by other in a case is termed as-
Ans. Facts in Issue

75. Under the Evidence Act, the relevant fact must be-
Ans. Legally relevant

76. In how many years a sentence of imprisonment for life can be commuted by the Government?
Ans. 14 years

77. Which section of the CrPC provides protection against double jeopardy?
Ans. Section 300

78. Judges in Court of Session are appointed by?
Ans. High Court

79. In which section of the CrPC provision for free legal aid is given?
Ans. Section 304

80. What does pleading consist of?
Ans. Plaint and Written Statement

81. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not exceed:
Ans. 15% of total members of Lok Sabha

82. Residuary powers vests in?
Ans. Parliament under Article 248

83. Indira Sawhney vs UOI is a case popularly known as?
Ans. Mandal Judgement

84. Tender is an?
Ans. Invitation to offer

85. The relation of partnership according to section 5 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 arises from?
Ans. Contract

86. Indian Partnership Act came into force on?
Ans. 1 October 1932

87. As per the Indian Partnership Act, ‘business’ includes?
Ans. Trade, Occupation and Profession

88. Bodhraj vs State of J&K (2002) SC is related to?
Ans. Circumstantial Evidence

89. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is based on?
Ans. Doctrine of Confirmation by Subsequent events.

90. The maximum number of partners in a partnership has been provided under?
Ans. Indian Companies Act, 1956

91. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under?
Ans. Hearsay Evidence (Earlier called Scientific Evidence)

92. All the confessions are admissions but all the admissions are not confessions. State whether the statement is True or False.
Ans. True

93. If an accused voluntarily consents for brain mapping and Narco analysis then such information is relevant under which section of the Evidence Act?
Ans. Section 27

94. Palvinder Kaur vs State of Punjab relates to?
Ans. Confession

95. The admissibility of dying declaration is based on which maxim?
Ans. Nemo moriture Praesumntur Mentiri

96. Which provision of the Evidence Act reflects for the application of the principle of res judicata?
Ans. Section 40

97. The opinion of an expert under section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act is not relevant-
Ans. On a point of Indian Law

98. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket. The burden of proving that ‘A’ had a ticket is on?
Ans. ‘A’ (and not the Railway or the Ticket Collector etc.)

99. ‘Civil Death’ may be presumed if one has not been heard of for?
Ans. 7 years

100. The court may presume ‘that an accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in material particulars’ under?
Ans. Section 114 of the Evidence Act